Environmental Science MCQ Questions with Answers – Part 2

Environmental Science Questions Answers part 2 Eduhyme

Surprisingly, life is found in many hostile environments on this planet. Very hot temperatures (5,000°C) near volcanic spouts rising from the ocean floor, and polar, subzero temperatures (−84°C) are at the extreme ends of the temperature range. The earth’s biodiversity is truly amazing.

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Are you searching for multiple-choice questions or quiz on Environmental Science? Are you worried and couldn’t find the solution? Here in this article, we’re going to give you the solution by showing some MCQ questions on Environmental Science.

1. Wind erosion blows sand grains in a series of skipping movements called

(a) Tai chi
(b) Vegetation
(c) Blasting
(d) Saltation

2. When rock disintegrates and is removed from the surface of continents, it is called

(a) An eruption
(b) Denudation
(c) Shedding
(d) Lithification

3. The process that Gold Rush miners of the mid-1800s used to separate rock samples is called

(a) Dipping
(b) Panning
(c) Rolling
(d) Sluicing

4. Chemical weathering happens in all but one of the following ways

(a) Acid action
(b) Hydrolysis
(c) Intoxication
(d) Oxidation

5. When plant roots grow into rock fissures to reach collected soil and moisture, it is known as

(a) Recreational weathering
(b) Biological weathering
(c) Zoological weathering
(d) Desertification

6. To slow or stop erosion, farmers use all of the following methods except

(a) Water diversion and control
(b) Proper crop maintenance and rotation
(c) Overgrazing and frequent tilling
(d) Local holding ponds and dams

7. Deserts’ daytime temperatures can go up to

(a) 32°C
(b) 45°C
(c) 57°C
(d) 62°C

8. Ancient sand deserts are called

(a) Pale deserts
(b) Old dunes
(c) Bad picnic spots
(d) Beaches

9. Halophytes are

(a) Angels
(b) Animals that can see in the dark
(c) Plants those are able to tolerate extremely high levels of salts
(d) Fish that are bioluminescent

10. Peveril Meigs divided desert regions into three categories, according to their rainfall:

(a) Dry, drier, and driest
(b) Dry, moist, and wet
(c) Arid, temperate, and tropical
(d) Extremely arid, arid, and semiarid

11. Deforestation, overgrazing, and bad irrigation practices are all factors that contribute to

(a) Juvenile delinquency
(b) Desertification
(c) Glacier formation
(d) Metamorphism

12. Deserts cover roughly what percentage of the Earth’s surface?

(a) 20%
(b) 30%
(c) 40%
(d) 45%

13. United States’ deserts of Utah, Montana, Nevada, and southeastern Oregon are

(a) Polar deserts
(b) Semiarid deserts
(c) Coastal deserts
(d) Pale deserts

14. A fertile, green place in a sandy desert containing a spring, well, or irrigation is called

(a) An ice cap
(b) A neutral zone
(c) An oasis
(d) A deciduous forest

15. Desert rainfall is

(a) Less than 50 cm/year
(b) Greater than 50 cm/year
(c) Not a problem, there is always lots of rain
(d) Only seen by people in oases

16. The forest canopy is

(a) 2 meters high
(b) 5 meters high
(c) 10 meters high
(d) Nonexistent in hot and dry deserts

17. The dividing line between where calcium carbonate dissolves and accumulates in the ocean is called the

(a) Thermocline
(b) Biocline
(c) Geocline
(d) Lysocline

18. When calcium carbonate is used to build the shells of sea creatures, it is called

(a) Opalization
(b) The bivalve process
(c) Biomineralization
(d) Shellization

19. Organic matter always contains

(a) Neon
(b) Dark chocolate
(c) Iodine
(d) Carbon

20. Oxygen’s residence time in the atmosphere is approximately

(a) 12 weeks
(b) 300 years
(c) 1000 years
(d) 6000 years

21. High concentrations of calcium and/or magnesium in fresh water is commonly called

(a) Calciferous
(b) Hard water
(c) Soft water
(d) White wash

22. Scientists have studied the carbon cycle in all of the following geochemical reservoirs, except the

(a) Soil
(b) Earth’s core
(c) Oceans
(d) Fossil fuels

23. When land is shaped by water’s dissolving action on carbonate bedrock, it’s called

(a) Karst
(b) Tephra
(c) Teflon
(d) Feng shui

24. By dry weight, approximately what percentage of carbon are humans composed of?

(a) 20%
(b) 50%
(c) 70%
(d) 90%

25. The balance of weathering, subduction, and volcanism controls

(a) Atmospheric carbon dioxide concentrations over geologic time
(b) The formation of cumulonimbus clouds in the winter
(c) The duration of the summer solstice
(d) Stock prices

26. Karst formation is also called a

(a) Rabbit hole
(b) Nitrous oxide cascade
(c) Carbon dioxide cascade
(d) Wetlands

27. When solid waste does not pose a threat to the environment or to human health it is classified as

(a) Hazardous waste
(b) Fluid waste
(c) Nonhazardous waste
(d) Transuranic waste

28. The Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act is commonly called the

(a) Supermarket
(b) Super duper
(c) Clean Air Act
(d) Superfund

29. The 1962 environmental book The Silent Spring was written by marine biologist

(a) Rachel Carson
(b) Jack Showers
(c) Marvel Calkin
(d) Ralph Nader

30. Cesium (Ce137) and Strontium (Sr90) are

(a) Often added to toothpaste
(b) Fission products
(c) Both elements that burn yellow in a flame
(d) Nonhazardous waste products

31. Highly flammable, corrosive, reactive (explosive or unstable), or toxic wastes are considered

(a) Nonhazardous
(b) Low priority
(c) Hazardous
(d) Lively

32. These types of waste are responsible for the highest radioactive danger found in high-level wastes after a thousand years:

(a) Silicate
(b) Transuranic
(c) biological
(d) Landfill

33. Sharps are classified as what kind of hazardous waste?

(a) Biological
(b) Meteorological
(c) Claustrophobic
(d) Transuranic

34. Molecules broken down into simpler elements by microorganisms are said to be

(a) Quantum strings
(b) Biodegradable
(c) Inorganic esters
(d) Buckyballs

35. In order to make garbage disposal costs fair, some municipal areas have adopted

(a) Higher taxes
(b) Mobile landfill facilities
(c) “pay-as-you-throw” policies
(d) Larger trash cans

36. Nuclear waste comes from all of the following sources except

(a) Nuclear reactor byproducts
(b) Research facilities
(c) Hospitals
(d) Hair salons

37. Fossil fuels were first seen as a

(a) A quirk of nature
(b) Passing energy phase
(c) Sticky mess
(d) Convenient, virtually limitless source of energy

38. When vehicle fuels, because of physical or chemical properties, create less pollution than gasoline, they are known as

(a) Clean fuels
(b) Blue fuels
(c) Super fuels
(d) Strange fuels

39. Tanker traffic, wind patterns, sea currents, the last occurrence of an oil spill, and how often the beach is cleaned all affect the quantity and size of

(a) Sea gulls
(b) Tar balls
(c) Sun bathers
(d) Gum balls

40. Oil end users cause what percentage of petroleum pollution in North American oceans, according to a 2004 National Research Council research study?

(a) 20%
(b) 45%
(c) 60%
(d) 85%

41. A high-performance liquid fuel that releases low levels of toxic and ozone-forming compounds is

(a) Gasoline
(b) Decanol
(c) Methanol
(d) Molasses

42. Booms, skimmers, sorbents, chemical dispersants, and biological agents are all used to

(a) contain and clean up oil spills
(b) cook eggs
(c) build hospitals
(d) reduce wrinkles

43. Ethanol, the main vehicular fuel in Brazil, and ethanol/gasoline blends, are known as

(a) tobacohol
(b) CNG
(c) jet fuel
(d) gasohol

44. Less than what percentage of the energy in gasoline is used to move a car down the road?

(a) 15%
(b) 30%
(c) 50%
(d) 75%

45. When birds and fur-bearing mammals are coated with oil from spills, it most affects their body’s capability for

(a) flying
(b) thermoregulation
(c) swimming
(d) coordination

46. What process causes tar balls to become hard and crusty on the outside and soft on the inside?

(a) heating
(b) sieving
(c) weathering
(d) washing

47. A big concern facing geologists in the long-term storage of radioactive waste is that

(a) People living in the area will begin to glow in the dark
(b) The half-life will take even longer to pass
(c) Groundwater will seep into land sites and become contaminated
(d) People will mistake it for fluorescent minerals

48. The isotope of uranium that undergoes fission and releases huge amounts of energy is

(a) U190
(b) Pt225
(c) I60
(d) U235

49. Nuclear power is generated using the metal

(a) Copper
(b) Uranium
(c) Mercury
(d) Actinium

50. Solar cell degradation is called the

(a) Staebler-Wronski Effect
(b) Bert-Ernie Effect
(c) Watson-Crick Effect
(d) Pasteur-Salk Effect

51. Solar energy can provide electricity for all of the following uses, except

(a) Signs
(b) Traffic lights
(c) Submarines
(d) Lighting for parking lots

52. A strong regulatory backlash to nuclear power occurred in response to what event?

(a) Three Mile Island
(b) The Trail of Tears
(c) Mount Rushmore
(d) The eruption of Mount St. Helens

53. No new nuclear power plants have been built or planned in the United States since

(a) 1958
(b) 1962
(c) 1977
(d) 1983

54. Solar panels convert sunlight directly into electricity using silicon-filled

(a) Mood rings
(b) Photovoltaic cells
(c) Rubber balls
(d) Plant cells

55. Cadmium telluride is a common material used to make

(a) Dark chocolate
(b) Nylon
(c) Clothes hangers
(d) wafer-thin solar cells

56. Which country’s government has strongly promoted increases in nuclear power use over the past 30 years?

(a) Columbia
(b) Madagascar
(c) Holland
(d) France

57. What do marine farmers use to increase the growth of fish, shellfish, reptiles, and amphibians?

(a) High-protein flies and worms
(b) Highly saline water
(c) Exothermally heated water
(d) Marine steroids

58. Geothermal reservoirs can reach temperatures of

(a) 370°C
(b) 560°C
(c) 740°C
(d) 820°C

59. Impoundment, diversion, and pumped storage are all types of

(a) Solar cells
(b) Wind turbines
(c) Dams
(d) Hydroelectric power plants

60. The first geothermal district heating system in the United States was established in Boise, Idaho, in

(a) 1864
(b) 1893
(c) 1902
(d) 1910

61. Flowing water that creates energy and is turned into electricity is called

(a) Nuclear power
(b) Hydroelectric power
(c) Solar power
(d) Thermal energy

62. What force is perpendicular to the lift force of a wind turbine rotor?

(a) Friction
(b) UV radiation
(c) Heat
(d) Fusion

63. The following are all types of geothermal power plants, except

(a) Flashed steam
(b) Hybrid
(c) Trinary
(d) Dry steam

64. When deep underground heat is transferred by thermal conduction through water to the surface, it is called

(a) Solar energy
(b) Nuclear energy
(c) Wind energy
(d) Geothermal energy

65. Propeller-like turbine blades are used to generate electricity from

(a) Sunlight
(b) Rain
(c) Wind
(d) Snow

66. What percentage the United States’ energy needs are met by geothermal power?

(a) 50%
(b) 35%
(c) 20%
(d) 10%

67. Renewable energy certificates describe

(a) Coupons from fast food restaurants
(b) Electricity obtained from fossil fuels
(c) Only investments in solar power
(d) Environmental characteristics of power from renewable energy Projects

68. The study of compounds at the single atom level or 10–9-meter scale is called

(a) Chemical engineering
(b) Nanotechnology
(c) Microbiology
(d) Kinesiology

69. “Going green” means choosing alternative processes and products that

(a) Are used once and then thrown away
(b) Allow the environment to sustain itself
(c) Involve artificial turf/grass in sports stadiums
(d) Emit a small amount of radiation

70. The Geysers, a geothermal resource in California, generates what percentage of power demand to San Francisco and Oregon?

(a) 35%
(b) 50%
(c) 70%
(d) 90%

71. What country plans to fund innovative research projects in energy, a bid to boost their own and the European Union’s competitiveness?

(a) Holland
(b) Italy
(c) Belgium
(d) France

72. One of the first states to enact environmental standards and a strict definition of green power was

(a) California
(b) North Dakota
(c) Texas
(d) Iowa

73. General Motors Corporation, Johnson & Johnson, Delphi Corporation, Dow Chemical USA, DuPont, and FedEx, among others

(a) Pay their employees in U.S. currency only
(b) All have divisions in Madagascar
(c) Use only solar power for electricity generation
(d) Established a corporate partnership interested in using green power

74. For a cleaner electricity blend, consumers will have to pay as much as

(a) 1–2% more per month
(b) 5–8% more per month
(c) 10–20% more per month
(d) 25–40% more per month

75. The strength, electrical, and thermal properties of nanomaterials comes primarily from their

(a) Slippery skins
(b) knotted ends
(c) Large surface area
(d) Color

76. Electricity production is considered green energy if it is created

(a) Without causing any harmful environmental impact
(b) In the Rocky Mountains
(c) Only at night
(d) By cutting down old growth forests

77. Which kinds of clouds are often seen around mountain peaks?

(a) Contrails
(b) Stratus
(c) Mammatus
(d) Orographic

78. The large-scale clearing of all the trees from a land area by disease, burning, flooding, erosion, pollution, or volcanieruption is called

(a) Sustainable use
(b) Deforestation
(c) Glaciations
(d) Toxicology

79. In early Greek mythology, the Earth goddess Gaia, mother of the Titans, was honored as

(a) A great cook
(b) The first Nobel prize–winner in earth sciences
(c) An all-nourishing deity
(d) An excellent stag hunter

80. In which layer does all the weather we experience take place?

(a) Outer space
(b) Troposphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Stratosphere

81. Weak tornadoes (F0/F1) make up roughly what percentage of all tornadoes?

(a) 25%
(b) 50%
(c) 75%
(d) 100%

82. Atmospheric pollutants from volcanic eruptions affect

(a) Only insects and plants
(b) All living organisms worldwide
(c) Only humans living at the base of the mountain
(d) Polar climates only

83. In the United States, what percentage of the species on the endangered animals list live in or rely on wetlands?

(a) 20%
(b) 35%
(c) 50%
(d) 60%

84. Greenhouse gases are

(a) hypothetical
(b) Measurable
(c) Mostly made up of argon
(d) Immeasurable

Answers –

  1. D
  2. B
  3. D
  4. C
  5. B
  6. C
  7. C
  8. A
  9. C
  10. D
  11. B
  12. B
  13. B
  14. C
  15. A
  16. D
  17. D
  18. C
  19. D
  20. D
  21. B
  22. B
  23. A
  24. B
  25. A
  26. C
  27. C
  28. D
  29. A
  30. B
  31. C
  32. B
  33. A
  34. B
  35. C
  36. D
  37. D
  38. A
  39. B
  40. D
  41. C
  42. A
  43. D
  44. A
  45. B
  46. C
  47. C
  48. D
  49. B
  50. A
  51. C
  52. A
  53. C
  54. B
  55. D
  56. D
  57. C
  58. A
  59. D
  60. B
  61. B
  62. A
  63. C
  64. D
  65. C
  66. D
  67. D
  68. B
  69. B
  70. C
  71. D
  72. A
  73. D
  74. C
  75. C
  76. A
  77. D
  78. B
  79. C
  80. B
  81. C
  82. B
  83. C
  84. B

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