Astronomy Related Multiple Choice Questions With Answers – Part 2

Astronomy Questions Answers Part 2 Eduhyme

We may never know exactly what the common people of ancient times believed about the stars. We can read the translations of the works of the scribes, but what about the shepherds, the nomads, and the people in the ages before writing existed?

This article is for people who want to learn basic astronomy without taking a formal course. It also can serve as a supplement knowledge in a classroom, tutored or home-schooling environment.

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This article contains an abundance of practice quiz, test and exam questions. They are all multiple choice questions and are similar to the sorts of questions used in standardized tests.

1. Major asteroid impacts on the planets

(a) Have never occurred in our Solar System.
(b) Take place only on Jupiter and Saturn.
(c) Were once commonplace in the Solar System.
(d) Produce new comets.

2. A comet might be expected to suddenly become brighter if

(a) All the icy material in the nucleus has evaporated.
(b) The tail passes through the corona of the Sun.
(c) A solar flare occurs.
(d) Its perihelion takes it outside the orbit of the Earth.

3. A spherical swarm of millions or billions of distant comets that surrounds the Solar System is known as the

(a) Van Allen belt.
(b) Oort cloud.
(c) primeval Solar System disk.
(d) Tektite belt.

4. A small asteroid or massive meteoroid that crashes into the Moon can produce

(a) a comet shower.
(b) a new comet.
(c) a crater with rays.
(d) an Oort cloud around the Moon.

5. The “dirty snowball” model for the structures of comets is sometimes credited to

(a) Fred Whipple.
(b) Giuseppe Piazzi.
(c) Johann E. Bode.
(d) Johann D. Titius.

6. A meteorite

(a) Has the potential to become a meteor.
(b) Is like a meteor, except smaller.
(c) Is a meteor that strikes the surface of the Earth
(d) Becomes a meteoroid if it is captured by the gravitational field of a planet.

7. The radiant of a meteor shower

(a) Is always straight overhead.
(b) Is fixed with respect to the constellations.
(c) Is opposite the direction of the Earth’s motion through space.
(d) Depends on the number of meteors that fall each hour.

8. The asteroids were discovered in part because astronomers were searching for a planet to fit the orbital “slot” at 2.8 AU based on

(a) The trajectories of fallen meteorites.
(b) The behavior of the moons of Jupiter.
(c) The distribution of impact craters on the Moon.
(d) A mathematical formula developed by Titius and Bode.

9. After a comet has passed perihelion,

(a) The tail follows behind the nucleus.
(b) The tail streams out ahead of the nucleus.
(c) It breaks up into meteoroids.
(d) Its coma grows larger and brighter.

10. The Kuiper belt

(a) Lies outside the orbit of Neptune.
(b) Lies between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter.
(c) Is an intense region of radiation around Jupiter
(d) Is where comets go to die?

11. Tau Ceti is a notable star

(a) Because it emits a large amount of energy at 21 cm.
(b) Because it has several known Earthlike planets.
(c) In the sense that it has been closely examined by SETI scientists.
(d) For no reason.

12. The hydrogen emission wavelength of 21 cm might be used by extraterrestrial civilizations as

(a) A reference wavelength for space communications by radio.
(b) A means of eliminating a planetary energy crisis.
(c) A method of obtaining high-speed propulsion for space ships.
(d) Nothing; it is a logical wavelength to avoid.

13. The product of all the variables in the Drake equation stands for

(a) The number of advanced civilizations in our galaxy.
(b) The number of planets in our Solar System that have life on them.
(c) The number of stars in the Universe that have planets.
(d) The probability that extraterrestrial life exists.

14. Suppose that a biological cell is capable of replicating itself and does so exactly once ever}? 24 hours. If we start with one cell, how many cells will we have after 7 days, assuming that none of the cells die?

(a) 14
(b) 32
(c) 64
(d) 128

15. Suppose that the scenario described in the preceding question is allowed to go on for an indefinite time. Suppose also that the cells can supply their own food by photosynthesis. What will eventually limit the growth of the population of cells?

(a) The intensity of the light from the Sun
(b) The amount of available physical space on the planet
(c) The temperature
(d) The length of the growing season

16. The value of L in the Drake equation depends on

(a) How soon, or if, technologically advanced civilizations die off or annihilate themselves.
(b) How far a planet orbits from its parent star.
(c) The tilt of a planet on its axis.
(d) The proportion of stars that have planets with conditions suitable for life.

17. The purpose of SETI is

(a) To travel to other worlds.
(b) To encourage space aliens to land on Earth.
(c) To figure out what unidentified flying objects actually are.
(d) To find conclusive evidence of an advanced civilization on another planet.

18. The impact of a small asteroid on a planet

(a) Can cause massive species extinctions.
(b) Can spur the emergence of new species.
(c) Can cause a change in the planet’s climate.
(d) More than one of the above

19. The gloomy scenarios painted by Thomas Malthus for the population of a dominant species can be avoided by

(a) Finding new ways to grow food.
(b) reproducing as much as possible.
(c) Population control.
(d) Food rationing.

20. Which of the following is not one of the necessary conditions for a material thing to be generally considered alive?

(a) The ability to make copies of itself
(b) The ability to create order from chaos
(c) The ability to live forever
(d) A finite life span

21. Energy from a certain star is observed at a wavelength of 10 8 m. This is

(a) Between utility ac and shortwave radio.
(b) Microwave energy.
(c) Visible light.
(d) Between visible light and x-rays.

22. A galaxy is 100 million pc distant. Approximately how far is this in light- years?

(a) 326 million
(b) 30 million
(c) 100 million
(d) It can’t be calculated from this information.

23. If the Sun were viewed from a distance of 32.6 light-years, what would be its apparent visual magnitude?

(a) +4.8
(b) -4.4
(c) 0
(d) It can’t be calculated from this information.

24. Red-dwarf stars

(a) Bum out more quickly than blue giants.
(b) Live for about the same length of time as blue giants.
(c) Live much longer than blue giants.
(d) Never get hot enough for nuclear fusion to occur.

25. A certain stellar object has brightness that is constant, except for dips that occur at uniform intervals. There are two sets of spectral lines; one shifts toward the red, and the other shifts toward the blue. We can say with confidence that this is

(a) A Mira variable.
(b) A Cepheid variable.
(c) AN RR Lyrae variable.
(d) an eclipsing binary.

26. Stars in the extreme lower right portion of the H-R diagram are

(a) Red giants.
(b) Red dwarfs.
(c) White dwarfs.
(d) Supemovae.

27. When an object’s spectrum is red-shifted, this means that the spectral lines appear

(a) Smeared out.
(b) Invisible.
(c) Longer in wavelength than normal.
(d) Shorter in wavelength than normal.

28. A metal-deficient star consists almost entirely of

(a) All elements accept the metals.
(b) Helium.
(c) Gas and dust.
(d) Hydrogen and helium.

29. It is believed that someday the Sun’s core will

(a) Explode.
(b) Shrink because its hydrogen fuel has been spent.
(c) Collapse down to a geometric point.
(d) Condense into liquid water and then freeze into water ice.

30. The absolute visual magnitude of a star is the same as the apparent magnitude at a distance of

(a) 3.26 pc.
(b) 10.0 pc.
(c) 32.6 pc.
(d) 100 pc.

31. Photons are

(a) Antiprotons.
(b) Ant electrons.
(c) Antineutrons.
(d) Energy packets.

32. As a black hole swallows up more and more matter,

(a) Its mass decreases.
(b) The gravitational radius decreases.
(c) Its mass increases.
(d) None of the above

33. The waveforms of the pulses from a pulsar are

(a) Smooth.
(b) Irregular.
(c) Long.
(d) Short.

34. If an object collapses so that its radius is less than the Schwarzschild radius, then

(a) Things can come out but cannot go in.
(b) The escape velocity at the surface is greater than the speed of light.
(c) The escape velocity at the surface is less than the speed of light.
(d) The object is, by definition, a pulsar.

35. Radio waves travel through interstellar space at a slightly different speed than visible light because of

(a) Magnetic fields.
(b) Differences in photon energy.
(c) Dispersion.
(d) No! Radio waves always travel through interstellar space at precisely the same speed as visible light.

36. Suppose that a neutron somehow forms, and it is floating all by itself in space. How long can we expect it to last?

(a) Forever
(b) Until it collapses into a black hole
(c) Until it becomes part of a neutron star
(d) None of the above.

37. The EM energy from pulsars is believed to be a product of

(a) Neutrons decaying into energy.
(b) Matter interacting with antimatter.
(c) Electrons rising into higher orbits.
(d) None of the above.

38. As a rotating white dwarf dies out and collapses into a neutron star,

(a) It rotates faster and faster.
(b) It rotates more and more slowly.
(c) Its rotational speed does not change.
(d) Rotation loses meaning because of the incalculable density of the object.

39. Suppose that a 1,000-kg spacecraft from Earth touches down on a planet and that planet turns out to be antimatter. What will happen?

(a) There will be an explosion of incalculable violence, and all the matter in both the planet and the spacecraft will be annihilated.
(b)There will be an explosion, and approximately 90 quintillion (9.0 X 1019) joules of energy will be liberated.
(c) There will be an explosion, and approximately 180 quintillion (1.80 X 10 ) joules of energy will be liberated.
(d) The spacecraft will be quietly swallowed up by the planet and will disappear.

40. When an electron moves into a larger orbit within an atom,

(a) The electron’s energy increases.
(b) The electron’s energy decreases.
(c) The electron’s charge increases.
(d) The electron’s charge decreases.

41. As a black hole pulls more and more matter in,

(a) The Schwarzschild radius increases.
(b) The Schwarzschild radius decreases.
(c) The density increases.
(d) It gets darker and darker.

42. Quasars with large blue shifts in their spectra

(a) Are receding from us at nearly the speed of light.
(b) Are approaching us at nearly the speed of light.
(c) Are never seen.
(d) Emit large amounts of x-rays compared with other quasars.

43. When a celestial object scintillates, we can surmise that it

(a) is extremely luminous.
(b) Has a small angular diameter.
(c) Is a great distance from us.
(d) Emits energy mainly at short wavelengths.

44. Radio galaxies

(a) Emit far more energy at radio wavelengths than typical galaxies.
(b) Emit energy only at radio wavelengths.
(c) Have been observed only with radio telescopes.
(d) Are those galaxies toward which we have sent radio signals in an attempt to communicate with alien civilization.

45. If the spectrum of an object is red-shifted, this means that the emission or absorption lines

(a) Look red in color when examined visually.
(b) Appear at longer wavelengths than normal.
(c) Appear at higher frequencies than normal.
(d) Are most prominent in the red part of the spectrum.

46. A certain galaxy is observed, and its distance is estimated at 10 Mpc. We see this object as it appeared approximately

(a) 10,000 years ago.
(b) 10 million years ago.
(c) 32,600 years ago.
(d) 32.6 million years ago.

47. Within a cluster of galaxies,

(a) All the galaxies are of the same type.
(b) All the galaxies spin in the same direction.
(c) All the galaxies are approximately the same size.
(d) None of the above

48. Quasars are believed to be much smaller than typical galaxies based on the observation that

(a) They emit large amounts of energy at radio wavelengths.
(b) Their spectra are red-shifted.
(c) They are nearby, in the Milky Way galaxy.
(d) They can grow dimmer or brighter in short periods of time.

49. The spiral nebulae are large, distant congregations of stars rather than smaller objects within the Milky Way. In order to determine this, astronomers observed

(a) the colors of the gases comprising them.
(b) The radio emissions produced by them.
(c) The rate at which they spin.
(d) The bright nesses and periods of Cepheid variables within them.

50. A football-shaped galaxy might be classified as

(a) SO.
(b) S2.
(c) E5.
(d) SBc.

51. A common unit of acceleration is the

(a) Meter per second.
(b) Kilometer per second.
(c) Kilometer per hour.
(d) Gravity.

52. Suppose that you have a spherical ball with mass of a hundred grams (100 g) at rest. If you throw the ball at three-quarters of the speed of light, what will its mass become, as measured from a stationary point of view?

(a) 100 g
(b) 133 g
(c) 151g
(d) It cannot be calculated from this information.

53. Suppose that the ball in Problem 2 has an apparent diameter, as measured laterally (sideways to the direction of its motion), of a hundred millimeters (100 mm) when it is speeding along at three-quarters of the speed of light. What will its diameter be when it comes to rest?

(a) 100 mm
(b) 133 mm
(c) 151 mm
(d) It cannot be calculated from this information.

54. If a space ship is slowing down, that is, losing speed in the forward direction, the acceleration force inside the ship is directed

(a) Toward the rear.
(b) Toward the front.
(c) Toward the side.
(d) Nowhere; there is no acceleration force.

55. The Michelson-Morley experiment

(a) Showed that the speed of light depends on the direction in which it is measured.
(b) Showed that the speed of light depends on the velocity of the observer.
(c) Showed that the speed of light does not depend on the direction in which it is measured.
(d) Proved that the ether passes right through the Earth.

56. If you are in a spacecraft accelerating at 9.8 m/s through interplanetary space, you will feel the same force as you feel if you are sitting still on the surface of the Earth. This is an expression of

(a) A complete falsehood! Traveling through space is nothing at all like being on Earth.
(b) The fact that the speed of light is absolute, finite, and constant and is the fastest known speed.
(c) Einstein’s equivalence principle.
(d) The results of the Michelson-Morley experiment.

57. Suppose that you see a space ship whiz by at the speed of light. What is the time dilation factor k that you observe when you measure the speed of a clock inside that ship and compare it with the speed of a clock that is stationary relative to you?

(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) Infinity
(d) It is not defined.

58. Some light beams will follow curved paths

(a) Under no circumstances.
(b) When measured inside a space ship that is coasting at high speed.
(c) When measured in the presence of an extreme gravitational field.
(d) When measured from a reference frame that is not accelerating.

59. Suppose that you get on a space ship and travel toward the star Sirius at 150,000 km/s, which is approximately half the speed of light. If you measure the speed of the light arriving from Sirius, what figure will you obtain?

(a) 150,000 km/s
(b) 300,000 km/s
(c) 450,000 km/s
(d) It cannot be calculated from this information.

60. Clocks in different locations are impossible to synchronize from every possi¬ble reference frame because

(a) The speed of light is absolute, finite, and constant and is the fastest known speed.
(b) The speed of light depends on the location of the reference frame from which it is measured.
(c) The speed of light depends on velocity of the reference frame from which it is measured.
(d) There is no such thing as a perfect clock.

61. A simple convex lens has a focal length that varies slightly depending on the wavelength of the light passing through it. When such a lens is used as the objective of a telescope, this effect results in

(a) Dispersion.
(b) Spherical aberration.
(c) Chromatic aberration.
(d) Nothing! The premise is wrong. A convex lens has the same focal length for all wavelengths of light passing through it.

62. At the surface of Earth, the maximum useful magnification of a telescope, no matter how large the objective, is approximately 500X because of

(a) Skyglow.
(b) Air turbulence.
(c) Dispersion.
(d) Diffraction.

63. A spectrometer can record its image on

(a) Photographic film.
(b) An eyepiece.
(c) A secondary mirror.
(d) a gegenschein device.

64. The use of a CCD with a telescope can enhance the

(a) Focal length.
(b) Magnification.
(c) Image contrast.
(d) Spectral output.

65. According to the law of reflection,

(a) A ray of light traveling from a medium having a low refractive index to a medium having a higher refractive index is reflected at the boundary.
(b) A ray of light traveling from a medium having a high refractive index to a medium having a lower refractive index is reflected at the boundary.
(c) A ray of light always reflects from a shiny surface in a direction exactly opposite the direction from which it arrives.
(d) None of the above

66. A Cassegrain type reflecting telescope has an objective mirror with a diameter of 300 mm and an eyepiece with a focal length of 30 mm. The magnification is

(a) 100X.
(b) 10X.
(c) 9,000X.
(d) Impossible to calculate from this information.

67. A diverging lens

(a) Can collimate converging rays of light.
(b) Can focus the Sun’s rays to a brilliant point.
(c) Is also known as a convex lens.
(d) is ideal for use as the objective in a refracting telescope.

68. Suppose that the speed of red visible light in a transparent medium is 270,000 km/s. What, approximately, is the index of refraction for this substance with respect to red light?

(a) 0.900
(b) 1.11
(c) 0.810
(d) It cannot be calculated from this information.

69. As the magnification of a telescope is increased,

(a) The image resolution decreases in direct proportion.
(b) Physical stability becomes more and more important.
(c) The light-gathering area increases in direct proportion.
(d) Dimmer and dimmer objects can be seen.

70. An advantage of space telescopes over earthbound telescopes is the fact that

(a) Space telescopes have less mass.
(b) Space telescopes do not need power supplies.
(c) Space telescopes are not subject to temperature changes.
(d) Space telescopes are not subject to airglow.

71. Radio frequency noise caused by lightning in the atmosphere of our planet is called

(a) Sferics.
(b) Resolution.
(c) Aperture.
(d) Ground noise.

72. The resolving power of a dish-antenna radio telescope depends largely on

(a) The focal length of the reflector in meters.
(b) The diameter of the reflector in wavelengths.
(c) The distance to the source of the signal.
(d) The gain of the amplifier.

73. When observed at UV compared with visible wavelengths, the Sun

(a) appears brighter.
(b) Appears to rotate much more rapidly.
(c) is invisible.
(d) Has a larger angular diameter.

74. In order for an EM field to be produced, a charge carrier must be

(a) positive.
(b) Negative.
(c) Moving.
(d) Accelerating.

75. A binary star system, of which one member is a bright visible star and the other member is a black hole orbiting close to the visible star,

(a) Radiates virtually all its energy at radio wavelengths.
(b) Appears to us as a visible pulsar.
(c) Can emit x-rays.
(d) Is known as a blackbody.

76. Some radio waves from space cannot reach Earth’s surface because of

(a) The solar wind.
(b) Sferics.
(c) The ionosphere.
(d) lack of resolution.

77. The Sun emits most of its EM energy at

(a) Radio and IR wavelengths.
(b) IR and visible wavelengths.
(c) Visible and UV wavelengths.
(d) UV and x-ray wavelengths.

78. An EM field whose wavelength is 550 nm in free space would appear to us as

(a) A radio wave.
(b) Infrared radiation.
(c) Visible light.
(d) Ultraviolet radiation.

79. The wavelength of greatest EM energy intensity from a blackbody depends on

(a) The distance of the object from Earth.
(b) The angular diameter of the object.
(c) The mass of the object.
(d) The temperature of the object.

80. The radar telescope has been a valuable tool in

(a) The search for life on other worlds.
(b) Finding new comets.
(c) Observing the surface of Venus.
(d) Mapping the radio sky.

81. In one proposed spacecraft design, the hydrogen necessary for a nuclear- fusion-powered space vessel would be obtained from

(a) The surface of the Sun.
(b) Interstellar space.
(c) Moon rocks.
(d) The atmosphere of Jupiter or Saturn.

82. Which of the following propulsion systems, assuming that they all can be developed and used in space ships, will provide the most power for the least fuel mass?

(a) The ion engine
(b) The conventional rocket
(c) The matter-antimatter engine
(d) The nuclear fusion engine

83. Suppose that you are on a space ship bound for Mars and you observe a bright flare on the surface of the Sun. The most important thing you must do is

(a) Take advantage of the extra energy by turning the ship’s solar panels to directly face the Sun.
(b) Take cover in the ship’s radiation shelter.
(c) Set the communication system to a frequency that will not be interfered with by the approaching magnetic storm.
(d) Nothing special; carry on as usual.

84. Realistic telepresence spanning extremely long distances is

(a) Not feasible because radio receivers and transmitters cannot be made sensitive or powerful enough.
(b) Impractical because the speed of electromagnetic signals through space is only 299,792 km/s.
(c) Unworkable because the necessary signal bandwidth is impossible to obtain.
(d) Quite practical; there is no limit to the distance over which realistic telep-resence can be accomplished.

85. Visitors to the moons of Jupiter will have to be especially aware of the peril presented by

(a) The planet’s gravitation.
(b) The planet’s poisonous atmosphere.
(c) Radiation in the planet’s magnetosphere.
(d) None of the above; the Jupiter system will pose no special dangers.

86 One of the most common, and most powerful, arguments that some people make against space exploration cites the fact that

(a) The extraterrestrial planets and the stars cannot be reached because they are too far away.
(b) Earth is a perfectly fine place and it will last forever, so there will never be any need to venture into space.
(c) We ought to spend our limited resources to solve problems here on Earth before we spend money or energy on space programs.
(d) There is not likely to be life elsewhere in the Universe, so there is no point in wasting our time searching for it.

87. Overexposure to ionizing radiation such as gamma rays or cosmic particles is known to cause all the following except

(a) Overeating, leading to obesity.
(b) Genetic mutations.
(c) Increased incidence of cancer.
(d) Point like flashes in the field of vision.

88. Scientists are certain that if our species survives long enough we eventually will have to leave Earth and seek another place to live because

(a) The human population will become too great for Earth to support.
(b) Earth’s atmosphere will run out of oxygen.
(c) Humans will develop an insatiable desire to travel in space.
(d) The Sun will not remain a life-sustaining star forever.

89. Ion engines are efficient, but they

(a) Cause acceleration in bursts that would make space travel uncomfortable or dangerous.
(b) Operate at extreme temperatures, requiring elaborate means to prevent the hardware from melting or vaporizing.
(c) Produce extreme amounts of gamma rays, posing a hazard to the occu-pants of space ships in which they are used.
(d) Do not produce very much thrust.

90. The Moon, the asteroids, and other planets’ moons are believed by some astronomers to contain plenty of

(a) Natural resources such as minerals and metals.
(b) Ozone to replenish the protective layer in Earth’s upper atmosphere.
(c) life forms to provide food for Earth’s population.
(d) Land suitable for farming.

91. A telescope has an /-ratio of f/5. The magnification is 100X. What is the focal length?

(a) 500 mm
(b) 20 cm
(c) 100 mm
(d) It cannot be determined from this information.

92. A telescope has an objective focal length of 1,000 mm, and the eyepiece has a focal length of 25 mm. A 2X Barlow lens is used. What is the magnification?

(a) 20 X
(b) p40 X
(c) 80 X
(d) It cannot be determined from this information.

93. Some telescopes have a tendency to produce blurring near the outer edge of the field of view, even when things are in perfect focus at the center. This is called

(a) coma.
(b) Dispersion.
(c) Chromatic aberration.
(d) Depth of field.

94. The optimal position of a solar filter in an SCT is

(a) in front of the objective.
(b) Between the objective and the secondary mirror.
(c) Between secondary mirror and the eyepiece.
(d) Between the eyepiece and the observer’s eye.

95. You see a pair of binoculars in a surplus store. You see “7 X 70” stamped on them. The diameter of the objective lenses is

(a) 10 cm.
(b) 70 cm.
(c) 0.1 m.
(d) 70 mm.

96. Suppose that an SCT has a magnification of 200X with a particular eyepiece. A focal reducer/corrector that cuts the /-ratio by 37 percent is installed. What is the resulting magnification if the same eyepiece is used?

(a) 63 X
(b) 74X
(c) 126X
(d) 200X

97. The bearings of a properly adjusted fork mount/wedge move the telescope along coordinates of

(a) Compass direction and elevation.
(b) Celestial latitude and celestial longitude.
(c) Azimuth and altitude.
(d) Right ascension and elevation.

98. The light-gathering area of a refracting telescope is

(a) Proportional to the objective diameter.
(b) Proportional to the square of the objective diameter.
(c) Proportional to the /-ratio.
(d) Proportional to the magnification.

99. A filter that allows all light to pass through, with the exception of light at a sin¬gle wavelength, is called

(a) Broadband.
(b) line-type.
(c) Planetary.
(d) Lunar.

100. A prism that turns the path of the light rays entirely by means of total internal reflection is called

(a) A dispersive prism.
(b) A reflective prism.
(c) A flint prism.
(d) A porro prism.

Correct Answers –

  1. C
  2. C
  3. B
  4. C
  5. A
  6. C
  7. B
  8. D
  9. B
  10. A
  11. C
  12. A
  13. A
  14. D
  15. B
  16. A
  17. D
  18. D
  19. C
  20. C
  21. D
  22. A
  23. A
  24. C
  25. D
  26. B
  27. C
  28. D
  29. B
  30. B
  31. D
  32. C
  33. B
  34. B
  35. C
  36. D
  37. D
  38. A
  39. C
  40. A
  41. A
  42. C
  43. B
  44. A
  45. B
  46. D
  47. D
  48. D
  49. D
  50. C
  51. D
  52. C
  53. A
  54. B
  55. C
  56. C
  57. D
  58. C
  59. B
  60. A
  61. C
  62. B
  63. A
  64. C
  65. D
  66. D
  67. A
  68. B
  69. B
  70. D
  71. A
  72. B
  73. D
  74. D
  75. C
  76. C
  77. B
  78. C
  79. D
  80. C
  81. B
  82. C
  83. B
  84. B
  85. C
  86. C
  87. A
  88. D
  89. D
  90. A
  91. D
  92. C
  93. A
  94. A
  95. D
  96. C
  97. B
  98. B
  99. B
  100. D

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